23rd September 2021

A 42-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent, bilateral milky nipple discharge

A 42-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent, bilateral milky nipple discharge. She also reports headache and visual disturbances. There is no significant past medical or family history. The GP refers her to secondary care, where she undergoes further tests and is prescribed a medication.

Which of the following is the most appropriate medical management?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.