1st April 2022

A 83-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner

A 83-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner. Over the last few weeks, he has been getting mild earache in his right ear alongside a worsening in his hearing. He also complains of some mild itchiness in and around his right ear too. On examination of his ear, there appears to be evidence of impacted ear wax. There is no sign of infection or indication of tympanic perforation. The patient is otherwise well in himself.

Given the diagnosis, what would be the MOST appropriate first step in the management of this patient?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.