7th June 2023

A 60-year-old man with rapidly progressive cognitive impairment is seen on the acute medical take

A 60-year-old man with rapidly progressive cognitive impairment is seen on the acute medical take. He was previously independent with no history of cognitive impairment until two months ago. His past medical history includes stable angina and hypertension. His only medication is amlodipine and there is no relevant family history.

On examination, he is confused and disoriented. He is ataxic and noted to have abnormal jerking movements of his upper limbs. MRI brain shows high signal in the caudate region and EEG shows periodic sharp wave complexes.

Of the following options, which is the correct diagnosis?