A 36-year-old woman presented to the GP with a 4-day history of headache. The pain feels like it is behind her right eye
A 36-year-old woman presented to the GP with a 4-day history of headache. The pain feels like it is behind her right eye, and she is complaining of double vision. She feels nauseous and has been vomiting. She has no history of fever or neck stiffness. She has a background of anxiety but is not on any regular medications other than the combined oral contraceptive pill, and she is certain there is no risk of pregnancy at present. She looks after her 5-year-old son at home, who is well. She is a non-smoker, non-drinker and has a BMI of 24. On examination, there is bilateral papilloedema.
Which one of the following diagnoses is most consistent with the history given?
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