30th June 2023

A 41-year-old P0 attends the ambulatory care clinic for review.

A 41-year-old P0 attends the ambulatory care clinic for review. She is 36/40 and is found to have a BP of 145/96mmHg with readings consistently above 140/90mmHg. She has no other medical problems, no symptoms of pre-eclampsia and no protein on urine dipstick. What is the first line therapy for her?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.