29th July 2023

A 34 year old with a background of IVDU is admitted with a groin abscess and DVT in his left thigh.

A 34 year old with a background of IVDU is admitted with a groin abscess and DVT in his left thigh. He was initially treated with IV flucloxacillin. Over the next 2 days, he develops double vision, slurred speech and dysphagia.

Which of the following would not be indicated in managing this patient?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.