4th August 2023

A 42-year-old man has been treated for cellulitis, secondary to a dog bite, with IV co-amoxiclav.

A 42-year-old man has been treated for cellulitis, secondary to a dog bite, with IV co-amoxiclav. He is usually fit and well. He responds well to treatment and is stepped down to oral antibiotics. However, he then complains of new onset diarrhoea. Stool samples are positive for Clostridium difficile toxin. He feels well in himself otherwise and has no abdominal pain. Observation and inflammatory markers are stable.

What treatment would be appropriate to start?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.