11th April 2024

A 34-year-old woman presents with bloody nipple discharge.

A 34-year-old woman presents with bloody nipple discharge. She is very distressed by it, giving her significant health anxiety. A triple assessment is performed, and the investigation results suggest a solitary papilloma is the cause. Her symptoms persist. What is the most appropriate management in this case? 

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.