An 80-year-old man is admitted with an intracerebral haemorrhage. There is no history of falls or trauma
An 80-year-old man is admitted with an intracerebral haemorrhage. There is no history of falls or trauma. His GCS is 12. He is normally fit and well, independent at home with no package of care. He is on apixaban for AF. What is the most appropriate initial management option?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.
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