21st June 2024

A 40-year-old man is referred to your clinic by his nephrologist with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis

A 40-year-old man is referred to your clinic by his nephrologist with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis via Mantoux testing. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage IIIA and prior imprisonment in his native Wales. He reports no prior BCG vaccination history, denies night sweats or cough, and has a normal chest radiograph. A decision is made to treat his latent tuberculosis infection. Which of the following regimens is NOT an appropriate option?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.