8th July 2024

A 51-year-old man is referred to you by the surgical team. He was admitted with an episode of diverticulitis

A 51-year-old man is referred to you by the surgical team. He was admitted with an episode of diverticulitis which has been treated conservatively and he is now ready for discharge. They have noted a persistent derangement in his renal function, with an eGFR 44. This was similar 1-year ago, though he cannot recall why bloods were taken. He is not on any medication and has no other known medical conditions. HbA1c is within the normal range. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.