25th July 2024

A 72-year-old gentleman is referred to the haematology clinic with suspected lymphoma. He initially presented with painless

A 72-year-old gentleman is referred to the haematology clinic with suspected lymphoma. He initially presented with painless supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, abdominal fullness and a painful upper arm, which developed over several months. Imaging suggests the arm pain is secondary to bony involvement of the lymphoma.

Given the likely underlying diagnosis, what treatment is likely to be initiated for this patient?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.