16th August 2024

A 64-year-old female is referred to Ambulatory Care by her GP, having contacted them about leg weakness

A 64-year-old female is referred to Ambulatory Care by her GP, having contacted them about leg weakness. She has previously had an excellent functional baseline but has noticed her legs giving way more often recently, and in the last 6-8 weeks has felt that they are getting weaker.

She is brought into the clinic room in a wheelchair.

On systems review, she reports occasional headaches that have been worsening in recent years. Her weight is stable, and her appetite is unchanged. She feels low in mood due to her leg weakness but otherwise remains her usual self.

Examination reveals no sensory level. Power in both legs is symmetrically decreased. MRI brain reveals a parasagittal mass with homogeneous contrast enhancement and no vasogenic oedema.

Therapy is planned.

Which is the single most likely therapeutic aim?

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