23rd August 2024

A 42-year-old man has come to the neurology clinic for his annual review. He has had a diagnosis of MS for the last 7 years

A 42-year-old man has come to the neurology clinic for his annual review. He has had a diagnosis of MS for the last 7 years, however has minimal disability due to this. He has had 2 flares of MS since his diagnosis, which have been managed with IV methylprednisolone. His last flare was 2 years ago. He recovered fully from both these flares with no residual functional neurological deficit. He continues to work as an accountant and is not currently on any disease-modifying treatment.

What is the most appropriate classification of his MS?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.