1st February 2025

A 75-year-old woman presents due to pain in her hip. She has recently had an admission with a T12 compression fracture

A 75-year-old woman presents due to pain in her hip. She has recently had an admission with a T12 compression fracture which is being managed with analgesia and physiotherapy. She has had multiple MRI scans which have shown no further injury.

You are asked to see her due to vomiting. On taking a history, she reports that she tends to vomit after mobilising. The physiotherapy team reports she has also been reporting severe pain with mobilisation. She has just had a dose of oxycodone 2.5 mg and is currently comfortable. This was her 3rd dose in the past 24 h. She is also on a buprenorphine 5 mcg/h patch. What action is most likely to definitively manage her nausea?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.