24th February 2025

A 6-year-old boy, usually fit and well, presents with knee pain causing limp, progressively more painful over the past two months.

A 6-year-old boy, usually fit and well, presents with knee pain causing limp, progressively more painful over the past two months. On further questioning, the contralateral knee and both wrists had been painful a few weeks ago but this has now nearly resolved. Upon examination, there is no systemic upset, and the knee is slightly erythematous and swollen, with pain over the patella tendon and with reduced range of movement. Gait was antalgic when entering the room. There are no rashes and no complaints of eye symptoms. Given the likely diagnosis of JIA, which step in management needs to be put in motion most urgently? 

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only