11th May 2025

A 34-year-old man presents to general practice with persistent breathlessness.

A 34-year-old man presents to general practice with persistent breathlessness. He reports being treated for a provoked pulmonary embolism 9-months ago shortly after breaking his femur playing rugby. He was managed with anticoagulation for 3-months. He describes ongoing breathlessness since then, which has worsened over the last 2-months. Following further investigations, a diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension is made. Which of the following management is associated with the greatest resolution of symptoms and prolonged survival in this patient? 

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.