5th June 2026

A 76-year-old female with a background of asthma presents with persistent severe intrascapular pain that started suddenly 12 hours previously and has not been relieved with opiate analgesia.

A 76-year-old female with a background of asthma presents with persistent severe intrascapular pain that started suddenly 12 hours previously and has not been relieved with opiate analgesia. She undergoes a CT angiogram, which shows a dissection involving only the descending aorta. There are no signs of aortic rupture or organ malperfusion. What is the most appropriate management option?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.