A 67-year-old female presents with chest pain, syncope and hypertension.
A 67-year-old female presents with chest pain, syncope and hypertension. A CT angiogram shows a dissection that involves the descending aorta only. Its origin is distal to the left subclavian artery. There are no further complications. The patient has an intolerance to beta blockers. What is the most appropriate choice in the next management step?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.
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