11th June 2021

A child is brought to the GP by their parents after they developed right-sided groin and thigh pain

A child is brought to the GP by their parents after they developed right-sided groin and thigh pain accompanied by a limp. The child is otherwise well. On examination, observations are within normal ranges, but there is reduced internal rotation of the right hip due to pain. The child is referred for X-ray of the hip, which reveals avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis. All other investigations are negative, and an idiopathic cause is thought most likely.

Which of the following are risk factors for the most likely diagnosis?

Which THREE of the following are correct? Select THREE options only.