5th May 2024

A 28-year-old male presents with a painless swelling of the right testicle.

A 28-year-old male presents with a painless swelling of the right testicle. He denies any history of trauma or infection. Physical examination reveals a firm, non-tender mass in the right testicle. Ultrasound confirms a solid mass within the right testis. Tumour markers, including alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), are within normal limits. The patient undergoes a right orchiectomy, and histopathology confirms a diagnosis of stage I non-seminoma testicular cancer.

Which is the most appropriate next step in management?