25th May 2025

A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of worsening confusion, disorientation and memory loss.

A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of worsening confusion, disorientation and memory loss. She became increasingly agitated in the department and began to express persecutory delusions. She has no psychiatric medical history and was previously fit and well. She was managed as an inpatient with antipsychotics without any improvements for two weeks. Her lumbar puncture results were negative, with no viral organisms identified on PCR. On her third week of admission, she began to develop seizures that were confirmed on EEG. MRI of the brain revealed T2 hyperintensities within both hippocampi. CT of her body revealed a left ovarian teratoma.

Which of the following autoantibodies is the likely cause of the underlying diagnosis?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.