5th May 2024

A 35-year-old man with a history of bronchiectasis presents with a one-week history of increased cough, purulent sputum, and low-grade fever.

A 35-year-old man with a history of bronchiectasis presents with a one-week history of increased cough, purulent sputum, and low-grade fever. He has no history of Pseudomonas aeruginosa colonisation. His current management includes airway clearance techniques and nebulised hypertonic saline. He has not required antibiotics in the past year.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?