19th June 2023

A 27-year-old lady presents with a 2-week history of headache which is worse when bending over to tie her shoelaces

A 27-year-old lady presents with a 2-week history of headache which is worse when bending over to tie her shoelaces. She has a BMI of 34 and a past medical history of depression. On examination, she has papilloedema but no diplopia, normal visual acuity, and no focal neurology. CT head and MR venogram are both normal. An LP is done which reveals an opening pressure of 34cmH2O.

Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following options is the most effective disease modifying therapy?