19th June 2023

A 30-year-old lady presented with severe headache and blurring of vision. She has a past medical history

A 30-year-old lady presented with severe headache and blurring of vision. She has a past medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome, for which she takes the oral contraceptive pill. On examination, she has papilloedema and visual acuity 6/24 on the right and 6/18 on the left, which is new for the patient. Blood pressure is 135/83mmHg. Following investigation, a provisional diagnosis of idiopathic intracranial hypertension has been made, however, there is concern regarding imminent risk of visual loss.

Which of the following is the most important next step in the management of this patient?