30th July 2023

A 34-year-old man with a background of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP with symptoms of a flare-up

A 34-year-old man with a background of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP with symptoms of a flare-up, including loose stools and left-sided abdominal pain. He is deemed to have moderate disease activity. Previous imaging has shown inflammation limited to the left side only. The patient explains he had contacted the IBD nurse in the community and had tried rectal mesalazine for a week to no improvement.
What would be the next step in management to induce remission?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.