10th July 2023

A 62-year-old man presents with a deep necrotic 4cm x 4cm lesion on his abdomen

A 62-year-old man presents with a deep necrotic 4cm x 4cm lesion on his abdomen. It appears to have a violaceous border and is adjacent to a long-standing stoma. He has a past medical history of inflammatory bowel disease, ischemic heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and hypercholesterolemia. His GP has prescribed oral corticosteroids, but the lesion has not clinically improved.

Which of the following is the best suitable treatment option?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.