A 71 year old female presents with right leg inflammation in keeping with cellulitis
A 71 year old female presents with right leg inflammation in keeping with cellulitis. She has a background of AF on apixaban and IHD. Bloods reveal acute kidney injury (AKI) and you calculate creatinine clearance (CrCl) of 13 mL/min. She is haemodynamically stable with no evidence of blood loss. Which of the following would be the appropriate action in regards to her thromboprophylaxis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.
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