2nd January 2024

In the above patient, which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of the fundoscopy findings

A 68-year-old female with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with sudden onset left monocular vision loss. Visual acuity is limited to perception of light in the affected eye. There is a left relative afferent pupillary defect. On fundoscopy, there is retinal pallor with a cherry-red spot in the centre of the macula. Orange plaques can be seen at the retinal vessel bifurcations.

Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of the fundoscopy findings?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.