4th June 2025

A 40-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 2-year history of gradual painless swelling of his left leg; the swelling initially started in his foot but has now spread up to his knee.

A 40-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 2-year history of gradual painless swelling of his left leg; the swelling initially started in his foot but has now spread up to his knee. He has a background of hypertension and moved to the UK a few months ago from Brazil, where he lived in a rural area. On examination, you note significant non-pitting oedema of the left lower leg to the knee, there is a positive Stemmer’s sign. What is the most likely causative organism?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.