22nd June 2026

A 45-year-old lady with long-standing hypertension has come to the GP with leg swelling bilaterally.

A 45-year-old lady with long-standing hypertension has come to the GP with leg swelling bilaterally. She does not have any other medical history. The GP has referred her to the ambulatory care unit for bloods and further assessment. Her bloods in the unit show normal routine bloods and a BNP of 10. She then has a CXR, which shows no acute features. How would you manage this patient?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.