23rd May 2025

A 45-year-old male has a diagnosis of acromegaly secondary to an enclosed pituitary somatotroph microadenoma.

A 45-year-old male has a diagnosis of acromegaly secondary to an enclosed pituitary somatotroph microadenoma.  His GH levels are elevated and IGF-1 levels are twice the upper limit of normal. Initial intervention with transsphenoidal surgery was unsuccessful and the patient remained symptomatic. 

What is the next most suitable management option?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.