A 45 year old with known Crohn’s disease and previous bowel resections has been admitted following abdominal pain
A 45 year old with known Crohn’s disease and previous bowel resections has been admitted following abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has no other medical problems and her only regular medication is azathioprine. On a routine set of coagulation blood tests, her INR has come back at 1.8 (<1.4). APTT is 33 (30-40), fibrinogen is 2.5 (2.0-4.0). What is the potential cause of this presentation?
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