A 56-year-old with established COPD presents with a 2-week history of increasing shortness of breath
A 56-year-old with established COPD presents with a 2-week history of increasing shortness of breath, pyrexia, and feeling generally unwell. She complains of right sided chest pain, a productive cough and shortness of breath. She has not been able to go to work for the last week and took a course of amoxicillin and prednisolone from her GP with no effect. She completed this course 6 days ago. She denies any history of trauma. Her RR is 21, saturations are 96% on air, HR is 71 bpm, BP is 155/88 mHg. Her CRP and WCC are raised, as was her D-dimer, which prompted the emergency department to perform a CTPA. This showed fluid at the base of the right lung with effacement of the pleura, as well as lobar collapse in the right lower zone. It did not demonstrate a PE. She has no allergies.
Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s diagnosis and management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.
Take your subscriptions with you
Our mobile app allows you to access your interview and exam question banks wherever you are.