2nd September 2020

A 14-Year-old boy presents to his GP with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter’s disease

A 14-Year-old boy presents to his GP with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter’s disease. There is no history of traumatic knee injury. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line management plan for this patient?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.