A 40-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance
A 40-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has an acutely painful left leg following entrapment in a road traffic collision. Her trauma CT (with contrast) shows a comminuted fracture of the tibia with no other injuries. She will not let you anywhere near her leg to examine her claiming the lightest touch causes excruciating pain. You can see the limb is swollen, shiny and white.
Which of the diagnoses above is responsible for the presentations described? Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list above.
Take your subscriptions with you
Our mobile app allows you to access your interview and exam question banks wherever you are.