29th October 2020

A 45-year-old man with type-1 diabetes is referred to ophthalmology after a gradual reduction in his visual acuity

A 45-year-old man with type-1 diabetes is referred to ophthalmology after a gradual reduction in his visual acuity. He denies any associated symptoms. Slit-lamp examination is unremarkable, but OCT demonstrates a thickened macula bilaterally. He has had diabetes for the last 35 years, which is managed with Lantus and Novorapid. His most recent HbA1c was 60 mmol/mol (7.6%). What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.