14th August 2020

A 47-year old woman presents with a one week history of loss of vision

A 47-year old woman presents with a one week history of loss of vision. She first noticed a small patch of blurred vision in her right eye. During the past seven days this has gradually worsened and now the entirety of the vision in that right eye appears blurred. On examination, she complains of pain on movement of the affected eye, and visual acuity on the right side is reduced to finger-counting. She has no other neurological symptoms and nothing like this has ever happened to her before. Her past medical history includes asthma, and she is otherwise well.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient? 

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.