8th September 2020

A 48-year-old male with a background of type 2 diabetes presents to Accident and Emergency

A 48-year-old male with a background of type 2 diabetes presents to Accident and Emergency unable to walk. He describes a pain in his foot which has been worsening for the past 24 hours. On examination of the patient the GP notes the 1st metatarsal-phalangeal joint (MTP) of his right foot appears to be erythematous, swollen, hot and tender to touch. The patient states that this has happened twice before. He has no other comorbidities. Considering the most likely diagnosis in this patient, which of the above therapies is most likely to be beneficial in the acute setting?

For the patient above, please select the SINGLE most appropriate management option. Select ONE option from the list above.