17th August 2020

A 48-year-old woman attends a GP appointment

A 48-year-old woman attends a GP appointment. She is complaining of vulval pruritis,  associated with a creamy-white discharge, which she has been managing as thrush using over-the-counter treatments. For the past several months she has had episodes like this – at least once a fortnight. Her past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol, for which she takes ramipril and simvastatin, but she does not have any other health conditions or take any immunosuppressive medications. She has not recently taken any antibiotics. The patient divorced her partner around five years ago and has not been sexually active since. She has two adult children, has regular menstrual periods, does not smoke, drink, or use any recreational drugs, and works as a bus driver.

Which of the following investigations would be an appropriate initial measure to screen for any underlying diseases? 

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.