11th June 2021

A 6-year-old boy presents to the GP with a painless limp of 3-month duration

A 6-year-old boy presents to the GP with a painless limp of 3-month duration. His mother recalls that he had been complaining of groin and inner thigh pain a few months ago, but that this has since resolved leaving him with just a limp. On examination, there is reduced hip abduction and internal rotation.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.