17th July 2020

A 63-year-old man presents to A&E with a history of longstanding left lower quadrant pain

A 63-year-old man presents to A&E with a history of longstanding left lower quadrant pain which has worsened over the last 24 hours. He denies anorexia, weight loss or PR bleeding. He is pyrexial but haemodynamically stable. On examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. There are no swellings in his hernial orifices. He is a non-smoker, drinks 8 units per week, but his dietary history reveals a reduced fibre intake.

Which of the following is the SINGLE most appropriate first-line investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

Select option from the list below. Select ONE option only.