8th September 2020

A 63-year-old man with a known background of hypertension presents to his GP

A 63-year-old man with a known background of hypertension presents to his GP with right knee pain that has been worsening for the past 6 months. His BMI and waist measurement show that he is obese. He denies any history of trauma. He is sent for an x-ray which shows joint space narrowing and subchondral sclerosis. His blood results are as follows:

• Urea – 9mmol/L
• Creatinine – 150umol/L
• eGFR – 55ml/min (CKD3)
  

What is the most appropriate initial step in managing his pain?

For the patient above, please select the SINGLE most appropriate management option. Select ONE option from the list above.