23rd September 2021

A 30-year-old female presents to her GP with severe left breast pain

A 30-year-old female presents to her GP with severe left breast pain. This had been worsening over 2 days and is now accompanied by tiredness, muscle aches and fever. She had been breastfeeding her 3-month-old infant, though she had been unable to do so over the last few days. Paracetamol has offered little benefit. She has a past medical history of puerperal mastitis, which had developed once she had stopped breastfeeding her first child. Her drug history consists of paracetamol only, and she is allergic to penicillin. On examination, there is a red, swollen, wedge-shaped area of the left breast, as well as a nipple fissure.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.