1st April 2022

A 40-year-old woman is seen by a psychiatrist following referral by her GP

A 40-year-old woman is seen by a psychiatrist following referral by her GP. She was diagnosed with  generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) several years ago, and despite various forms of psychological treatments, continues to struggle with debilitating symptoms. She has previously tried several different selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) as prescribed by her GP and not seen any improvement in symptoms.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate next line management option?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.