23rd September 2021

A 44-year-old male presents to his GP with persistent gynaecomastia

A 44-year-old male presents to his GP with persistent gynaecomastia, despite medical treatment. He is a professional weight-lifter and has reported taking anabolic steroids in the past, which the GP has discouraged. No other potential cause for gynaecomastia has been identified. There is no significant past medical or family history. On examination, the only pertinent finding is gynaecomastia, with marked enlargement of both breasts, as well as redundant skin.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.