1st April 2022

A 50-year-old man is seen in the emergency department with an acutely swollen left knee

A 50-year-old man is seen in the emergency department with an acutely swollen left knee. He is not febrile but is in a lot of pain which cannot be controlled with intravenous paracetamol. Blood tests show a raised white cell count and inflammatory markers. A joint aspirate is taken, which shows negatively birefringent crystals. 

Which of the following would be unsuitable pharmacological management for his current clinical condition?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.