A 70-year-old male presents for a follow-up of his primary open-angle glaucoma
A 70-year-old male presents for a follow-up of his primary open-angle glaucoma. His retinal changes and symptoms are still progressing despite having tried latanoprost and timolol eye drops. He has been adhering well to his treatment and has stopped smoking.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.
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