15th March 2022

A 77-year-old man is brought to A&E, having collapsed at home

A 77-year-old man is brought to A&E, having collapsed at home. His GCS is 3 out of 15. A CT scan shows a massive intracranial haemorrhage. The case is discussed with the neurosurgical team, who decide he would not be appropriate for operative management. The decision is made for palliative management.

He has a prior DNACPR in place, on which his named next of kin is his daughter, who is currently living in New Zealand. His only relative in the UK, a nephew, attends hospital and asks for some information on the likely prognosis.

Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.